UPSC CSE Complete Practice Test - 15 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - UPSC (2024)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Pneumatophores help in obtaining oxygen in an otherwise anaerobic substrate.
• Mangroves are a group of trees and shrubs that live in the coastal intertidal zone.
• Mangroves grow in areas with lowoxygen soil, where slow-moving waters allow fine sediments to accumulate.
• Mangrove forests only grow at tropical and subtropical latitudes near the equator because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures.
• They grow luxuriantly in the places where freshwater mixes with seawater and where sediment is composed of accumulated deposits of mud.
• The Sundarbans delta is the largest mangrove forest in the world and is intersected by a complex network of tidal waterways, mudflats and small islands of salt-tolerant mangrove forests. It lies at the mouth of the Ganges.
• Mangroves have breathing roots also called aerial roots which is defined as a root which, for part of the day, is exposed to the air.
• The mangrove mud is rather anaerobic (oxygen poor) and unstable and different plants have root adaptations to cope with these conditions.
• Pneumatophores - Pneumatophores are erect roots that are some form of upward extension of the underground root system.
• Because these roots are exposed at least part of the day and not submerged underwater, the root system can obtain oxygen in an otherwise anaerobic substrate. Pneumatophores also accumulate sediments in protected sites and form mangrove peats.

• The Ministry of Labour & Employment has launched e-SHRAM portal, a National Database of the Unorganised Workers on 26th August, 2021.
• The e-Shram portal is a centralized database that helps to implement social security services for unorganized workers.
• It also helps to share information with stakeholders and provide a comprehensive database for national crises.
• The portal uses Aadhaar to deliver social security benefits and ensure that the benefits are portable to migrant and construction workers at their workplaces.
• Registration on portal is free.

• Only statement 3 is correct.
• The Ring of Fire is associated with frequent earthquakes and volcanic eruptions due to the movement of tectonic plates. It is where several tectonic plates meet, resulting in significant geological activity, including the formation of volcanoes and seismic events.

Let's analyze each statement about the Strait of Gibraltar:

1. It is one of the narrowest straits in the world.
- This is true. The Strait of Gibraltar is indeed one of the narrowest straits, with a width of about 13 kilometers (8 miles) at its narrowest point.

2. It separates the Atlantic Ocean from the Mediterranean Sea.
- This is true. The Strait of Gibraltar connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea and separates Europe (Spain) from Africa (Morocco).

3. It was formed as a result of volcanic activity in the last 100 years.
- This is false. The Strait of Gibraltar was not formed by volcanic activity, nor was it formed in the last 100 years. It is a much older geological feature, formed millions of years ago due to tectonic processes.

Therefore, only the first two statements are correct.

The correct answer is:

2. Only two

• The HRA was founded by a group of young men who were disillusioned by Gandhi’s tactics and what they felt was zealous preaching of “non-violence.”
• Ram Prasad Bismil and Ashfaqulla Khan, both of whom had a flair for poetry, were among the group’s founders. Others included Sachindra Nath Bakshi and trade unionist Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee. Figures such as Chandra Shekhar Azad and Bhagat Singh would also join the HRA. Their manifesto released on January 1, 1925, was titled Krantikari (Revolutionary).
• It proclaimed, “The immediate object of the revolutionary party in the domain of politics is to establish a federal Republic of United States of India by an organized and armed revolution.

• Context: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and the National Internet Exchange of India (NIXI) have launched the BhashaNet portal during the Universal Acceptance Day event with support from the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN).
• It is developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing with support of National Internet Exchange of India.
• Universal Acceptance (UA) is a technical requirement that ensures that all domain names, email addresses, and top-level domains (TLDs) are treated equally.
• This means that all UA domain names can be used by any internet-enabled device, application, or system, regardless of script, language, or character length.

• Both 3D printing and nanotechnology often join forces to provide novel structures and application methods. Nanomaterials are utilized to enhance the features of printed materials such as electrical conductivity and sensing properties while 3D printing technologies are utilized to obtain nanosized structures that are not feasible by any other method.
• The convergence of nanotechnology and quantum science is rapidly expanding and proving to be mutually beneficial to both fields. Quantum nanoscience is a vital research area that intersects nanoscale science and quantum science, providing essential insights for developing nanotechnologies. It leverages quantum mechanics to explore and exploit coherent quantum effects in engineered nanostructures, offering possibilities for new nanodevices and nanoscale materials. Nanoscale materials and devices are used for quantum metrology and sensing, building blocks for quantum computing, and sources and detectors for quantum communication. They enable investigations into quantum behavior and unconventional states in nano- and opto-mechanical systems, low-dimensional systems, molecular devices, nano-plasmonics, quantum electrodynamics, scanning tunneling microscopy, and more.
• The benefits of nanotechnology for the food industry are many and are expected to grow with time. This new, rapidly developing technology impacts every aspect of the food system from cultivation to food production to processing, packaging, transportation, shelf life and bioavailability of nutrients.
• Nanomaterials are used as sensors to detect contamination and regulate the food environment. They can detect microbial and other food contaminants. Therefore, they are used as sensors in food production and at packaging plants. They can monitor the condition of food during transport and storage. They can detect nutrient deficiency in edible plants, and dispensers containing nutrients can deliver them to plants when needed. Therefore, nanomaterials can be used as nanosensors and nanotracers with almost unlimited potential by the food industry. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
• Other applications of nanotechnology include:
  • Nanoscale additives to or surface treatments of fabrics can provide lightweight ballistic energy deflection in personal body armor or can help them resist wrinkling, staining, and bacterial growth.
  • Clear nanoscale films on eyeglasses, computer and camera displays, windows, and other surfaces can make them water- and residue-repellent, antireflective, self-cleaning, resistant to ultraviolet or infrared light, antifog, antimicrobial, scratch-resistant, or electrically conductive.
  • Nanoscale materials are beginning to enable washable, durable “smart fabrics” equipped with flexible nanoscale sensors and electronics with capabilities for health monitoring, solar energy capture, and energy harvesting through movement.
  • Lightweighting of cars, trucks, airplanes, boats, and spacecraft could lead to significant fuel savings. Nanoscale additives in polymer composite materials are being used in baseball bats, tennis rackets, bicycles, motorcycle helmets, automobile parts, luggage, and power tool housings, making them lightweight, stiff, durable, and resilient.

Biodiversity

• Some important reasons that influence the pattern of Biodiversity are as follows:
  • Speciation which is needed for species diversification
  • A relatively more constant and predictable environment that promotes niche specialization and lead to greater species diversity.
  • More insolation contributes to higher productivity, in turn, contribute indirectly to greater diversity.
  • The more complex ecosystem provides more food web i.e. many entry points for any organism. This, in turn, sustains the greater biodiversity.
• Niche similarity is not good, promotes high competition and leads to loss of biodiversity.

• Pair 1 is correctly matched: Gravitational settling is used to control air pollution. It is used to remove large diameter suspended particles from a gas by using gravitational force.
• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Phytoremediation is used to control soil pollution. It uses microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) to damage the environment into less toxic form. The microorganisms may be native to the polluted area or they may be invasive.
• Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Electrostatic precipitators are the control measure of air pollution. Works on the principle of electrostatic precipitation, in which electrically charged particulates existing in the polluted gas are isolated from the gas stream under the influence of electrical field.

• Statement 1 is correct: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
• Statement 2 is correct: Jawaharlal Nehru emphasized the values of democracy, secularism, and socialism, which guided the drafting process.
• Statement 3 is correct: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a crucial role in integrating the princely states into the Indian Union.

Important Personalities:

• The Indian Constituent Assembly, through its composition, inclusive representation, and key debates, created a Constitution that reflects the aspirations and values of a diverse nation. The Constitution has provided a strong foundation for India’s democracy, upholding fundamental rights, ensuring social justice, and promoting the welfare of its citizens.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: Dr. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution. He played a crucial role in drafting the Constitution and advocating for the rights of marginalized communities. His efforts were instrumental in incorporating provisions related to social justice and equality.
• Jawaharlal Nehru: As the first Prime Minister of India, Nehru played an influential role in shaping the Constitution. He emphasized the values of democracy, secularism, and socialism, which guided the drafting process.
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly. His leadership and guidance ensured smooth proceedings and maintained the integrity of the assembly.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Known as the “Iron Man of India,” Patel played a crucial role in integrating the princely states into the Indian Union. His efforts in securing national unity and territorial integrity were essential during the framing of the Constitution.

Lok Adalats

• Lok Adalats which are voluntary agencies is monitored by the State Legal Aid and Advice Boards. They have proved to be a successful alternative forum for resolving of disputes through the conciliatory method.
• The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 provides statutory status to the legal aid movement and it also provides for setting up of Legal Services Authorities at the Central, State and District levels.
• These authorities will have their own funds. Further, Lok Adalats which are at present informal agencies will acquire statutory status.
• Every award of Lok Adalats shall be deemed to be a decree of a civil court or order of a Tribunal and shall be fi nal and binding on the parties to the dispute.
• It also provides that in respect of cases decided at a Lok Adalat, the court fee paid by the parties will be refunded.

• As regards external trade routes, after the discovery of monsoons by Hippatus a Greek navigator in 45 AD, more and more sea voyages were used for trading purposes. Important ports of India on the western coast were (from north to south direction) Bharukachchha Sopara, Kalyana, Muziris, etc. Ships from these ports sailed to the Roman Empire through the Red Sea. Hence, Option 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
• Trade with southeast Asia was conducted through the sea. Prominent ports on the eastern coast of India were Tamralipti (West Bengal), Arikamedu (Tamil Nadu Coast) etc. Sea trade was also conducted between Bharukachchha and the ports of Southeast Asia. Hence, Option 4 is incorrect.

Election Commission as an Electoral management Body

• An EMB is an organization or body that has the sole purpose of, and is legally responsiblefor, managing some or all of the elements that are essential for the conduct of elections and direct democracy instruments—such as referendums, citizens’ initiatives and recall votes—if those are part of the legal framework. These essential (or core) elements include:
  • determining who is eligible to vote;
  • receiving and validating the nominations of electoral participants (for elections, political parties and/or candidates);
  • conducting polling;
  • counting the votes; and
  • Tabulating the votes.
• If these essential elements are allocated to various bodies, then all bodies that share these responsibilities can be considered EMBs. An EMB may be a stand- alone institution, or a distinct management unit within a larger institution that may also have non-electoral tasks.
• In addition to these essential elements, an EMB may undertake other tasks that assist in the conduct of elections and direct democracy instruments, such as voter registration, boundary delimitation, voter education and information, media monitoring and electoral dispute resolution. However, a body that has no electoral responsibilities other than, for example, boundary delimitation (such as a boundary delimitation commission), electoral dispute resolution (such as an electoral court), election media monitoring (such as a media monitoring commission), or the conduct of voter education and information (such as a civic education commission) is not considered an EMB because it is not managing any of the essential elements identified above.
• Similarly, a national population or statistics bureau that produces electoral registers as part of the general process of population registration is not considered to be an EMB.
• Different EMBs may be established for different electoral processes. In Mexico and Poland, the EMBs are responsible for both presidential and parliamentary elections; in Australia, the national EMB deals with national-level elections, while state-level elections are the responsibility of separate state-level EMBs. In the United Kingdom (UK), the arrangements for the conduct of elections and referendums are separate.
• Some bodies that are not engaged in any of the essential elements of elections may nonetheless be popularly regarded as EMBs.
• The US Federal Election Commission (FEC) defi nes its mission as ‘administering and enforcing federal campaign fi nance laws’. However, such institutions do not qualify as EMBs under the definition above.
• In addition to the division of functional responsibility for different elements of the electoral process, electoral responsibilities may be divided between bodies at different levels.
• For example, some elements of the conduct of elections may be managed by a nationallevel electoral commission, a ministry (such as the Ministry of the Interior) or a national government agency, while others are implemented by local-level commissions, regional branches of government departments or local authorities (as in Spain).

• After deliberating amongst itself for close to three weeks, and after long discussions with delegates who had returned from London's first RTC, and with other leaders representing a cross-section of political opinion, the Congress Working Committee authorized Gandhiji to initiate discussions with the Viceroy. The fortnight-long discussion culminated on 5 March 1931 in the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, which was variously described as a ‘truce’ and a provisional settlement.’ The Pact was signed by Gandhiji on behalf of the Congress and by Lord Irwin on behalf of the Government, a procedure that was hardly popular with officialdom as it placed the Congress on an equal footing with the Government.
• The Congress met at Karachi on 29 March 1931 to endorse the Gandhi-Irwin or Delhi Pact. Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru had been executed six days earlier.
• The Karachi Resolution was passed by the Indian National Congress at its 1931 Karachi session. The Session was conducted in the shadow of three major events. First, Mahatma Gandhi had just been released from prison following his Salt Satyagraha. Second, the Gandhi-Irwin pact had just been concluded which had brought the civil disobedience movement to an end. And third, the British government had, a week before the session, executed Bhagat Singh and two of his associates in connection with the Kakori Conspiracy case.The Resolution is three pages long and is mostly written in a quasi-legal style. It reiterated the Congress Party’s commitment to ‘Purna Swaraj’ or ‘complete independence’. In addition to fundamental rights which protected civil liberties, the Resolution for the first time put forward a list of socio-economic principles/rights that the Indian state had to adhere to. These included: protections for industrial workers, abolishing of child labour, free primary education and protections for agricultural labour. The Resolution also, which seems to be a Gandhian influence, prohibited intoxicating drinks and drugs.
• Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were sentenced to death in the Lahore conspiracy case and ordered to be hanged on 24 March 1931. The schedule was moved forward by 11 hours and the three were hanged on 23 March 1931 at 7:30 pm in the Lahore jail.
• Gandhiji sailed for London on 29 August 1931 to attend the Second Round Table Conference. It was held in London from 7 September 1931 to 1 December 1931. Nothing much was expected from the Conference for the imperialist political and financial forces, which ultimately controlled the British Government in London, were opposed to any political or economic concessions being given to India which could lead to its independence from their control. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Crowding out results in an increase in real interest rate in the economy.
Supplementary Notes
Crowding out

• Crowding out refers to a phenomenon where increased borrowing by the government (expansionary policy) to meet its spending needs causes a decrease in the quantity of funds that is available to meet the investment needs of the private sector .
• Crowding out results in an increase in real interest rate in the economy
• One of the most common forms of crowding out takes place when a large government, such as that of the U.S., increases its borrowing and sets in motion a chain of events that result in the curtailing of private sector spending. The sheer scale of this type of borrowing can lead to substantial rises in the real interest rate, which has the effect of absorbing the economy’s lending capacity and of discouraging businesses from making capital investments. Companies often fund such projects in part or entirely through financing, and are now discouraged from doing so because the opportunity cost of borrowing money has risen, making traditionally profitable projects funded through loans cost-prohibitive.

• The catalyst to the new phase of the movement was provided when, in November, 1927, the British Government appointed the Indian Statutory Commission, known popularly after the name of its Chairman, as the Simon Commission, to go into the question of further constitutional reform. All the members of the Commission were Englishmen. This announcement was greeted by a chorus of protests from all Indians. What angered them most was the exclusion of the Indians from the Commission and the basic notion behind this exclusion that the foreigners would discuss and decide upon India‘s fitnessfor self-government. In other words, this British action was seen as a violation of the principle of self-determination and a deliberate insult to the self-respect of the Indians.
• At its Madras Session in 1927, presided over by Dr. Ansari, the National Congress decided to boycott the Commission ―at every stage and in every form‖. The Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha decided to support the Congress‘s decision. In fact, the Simon Commission united, at least temporarily, different groups and parties in the country.
• As a gesture of solidarity with the nationalists, the Muslim League even accepted the principle of joint electorates, provided seats were reserved for the Muslims. All important Indian leaders and parties also tried to meet the challenge of the Simon Commission by getting together and trying to evolve an alternative scheme of constitutional reforms. Tens of conferences and joint meetings of leading political workers were held. The end result was the Nehru Report, named after its chief architect, Motilal Nehru, and finalized in August, 1928. Unfortunately, the All Party Convention, held at Calcutta in December, 1928, failed to pass the Report. Objections were raised by some of the communal-minded leaders belonging to the Muslim League, the Hindu Mahasabha and the Sikh League. Thus, the prospects of national unity were foiled by the communal groups. Communalism began to grow steadily after this.
• It should also be noted that there existed a basic difference between the politics of the nationalists and the politics of the communalists. The nationalists carried on a political struggle against the alien government to win political rights and freedom for the country. This was not the case with the communalists, Hindu orMuslim. Their demands were made on the nationalists; on the other hand, they usually looked to the foreign government for support and favours. They frequently struggled against the Congress and cooperated with the government.
• The Commission‘s arrival in India led to a powerful protest movement in which nationalist enthusiasm and unity reached new heights. On 3rd February, the day the Commission reached Bombay, an allIndia hartal was organized. Wherever the Commission went, it was greeted with hartals and black-flag demonstrations under the sloganSimon Go Back‘. The government used brutal suppression and police attacks to break the popular opposition.
• The anti-Simon Commission Movement did not immediately lead to wider political struggle, because Gandhi, the unquestioned, though undeclared leader of the national movement, was not yet convinced that the time for struggle had come. But popular enthusiasm could not be held back for long, as the country was, once again, in a mood of struggle.

• Brumbrella takes its name from a large pitch covering that was used at Edgbaston from 1981 to 2001.
• It’s the latest in the series of innovations implemented by England in the recent past as they attempt to spice up Test cricket. In this, all fielders were placed in close-catching positions, three on the offside and three on the leg, as the field setup looked like an umbrella.

• The gravitational force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the product of masses of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance between them.
• The electromagnetic force between two bodies is directly proportionate to the product of charges of the two objects and inversely proportionate to the square of the distance between them. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Gravitational force is always attractive while Electromagnetic force can be both attractive and repulsive. The same charges repel each other while opposite charges attract. Hence statement 1 is correct
• The electromagnetic force is not dependent upon mass.

Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• There is air trapped in between the wool fibers in case of combined blankets. Hence air together with wool conducts less heat through the blanket as this air prevents the flow of heat from our body to the cold surroundings. Such is not the case with a single blanket.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Pollutants and their sources

• Nitrogen Compound

Source: Motor vehicle exhaust

• Effects:
  • Irritation in eyes and lungs (NO and N₂O) atmospheric reaction
  • Low productivity in plants
  • Acid rain damages material (metals and stone)
• Sulphur compounds

Source: Power plants and refineries

• Effects:
  • Respiratory problems in humans (SO₂ and H₂S) volcanic eruptions
  • Loss of chlorophyll in plants (chlorosis)
  • Acid rain
• Hydrocarbons (benzene, ethylene)

Source: Automobiles and petroleum industries

• Effects:
  • Respiratory problem
  • Cancer causing properties
• Carbon compound (CO and CO₂)

Source: Automobile exhaust, burning of wood and coal

• Effects:
  • Respiratory problems
  • Greenhouse effect

Pair 1 is correct: Karkota (also called Karkotaka) dynasty was founded by Durlabhavardhana (Reign:598-634 AD). Durlabhavardhana won the friendship of Harshavardhana by presenting him a prized tooth-relic of the Buddha for installation in a shrine at Kanauj. The most powerful ruler of the Karkota dynasty was Lalitaditya (Reign: 724-60 AD), who is known as/for:

• the third son of Durlabhaka alias Pratapaditya.
• Subjugation of Yashovarman of Kannauj ( 740 AD)
• Invasion of Karnata, then subject to a queen named Ratta.
• Occupation of Avanti and Kamboja, conquering a portion of the Punjab.
• Campaigns in Tukharistan (the upper Oxus valley) and Daradadesa (Dardistan, north-west of Kashmir).
• Carrying his arms to the land of the Bhauttas (Tibetans) and advancing into the realms of Uttarakuru.
• Founding cities of Lalitapura and Parihasapura. In the city of Parihasapura, he built temples for Brahmanical goods – Bhutesa (Shiva) and Parihasa Kesava (Vishnu). Also, in this city, he erected stone-image of Garuda and constructed a colossal figure of the Buddha.
• Erection of an image of Mukta Svamin and the temple of Jyestha Rudra in Huskapura.
• Building Buddhist viharas at Huskapura.
• Construction of the Martanda temple of the Sun.

Pair 3 is incorrect: The Pala dynasty was founded by Gopala (Reign: 750-770 AD) in Bengal; he swiftly ended the prevailing conditions of Matsyanyaya (strong devouring the weak), establishing order. Another renowned ruler of the Pala Dynasty was:

• Dharmapala (Reign: 770- 810 AD), son and successor of Gopala, who extended Pala's rule over substantial parts of north India. An ardent Buddhist, he commissioned the construction of several Buddhist monasteries and founded therenowned University of Vikramshila.

Pair 2 is incorrect: Yashovarman (Reign: 725-752 AD), who ascended the throne of Kannauj:

• was a reputed warrior.
• formed an alliance with China against the Arabs.
• was a patron of Bhababhuti (great Sanskrit litterateur).
• was a patron of Vakpati (who wrote Gaudavaho: Prakrit poem).

• Context: Researchers genetically modified theDrosophila melanogaster fruit fly, typically a sexually reproducing species, to reproduce asexually.
• Parthenogenesis is a form of asexual reproduction where an embryo develops from an unfertilized egg cell.

• Statement-I is correct: In trade, the barter system was much in vogue, though coins were also in use. Roman coins circulated as bullion.The major early historic ports have evidence of Roman amphora, glassware and other materials suggesting active maritime activities. The wealth brought by the Romans and the arrival of foreign merchants is evidenced in archaeology as well as literature. Roman gold and silver coins have been found in many hoards in the Coimbatore region and in many other places in south India
• Statement-II is correct: Long distance trade existed, and the connections with the Roman Empire and southeast Asia are evidenced at many archaeological sites. The southern part of India, because of its easy access to the coast and location in the maritime trade route connecting the East and the West, played an important role in overseas contacts.

• In the elections to the central assembly in December 1945, out of 102 seats, Congress won 57, the League 30, Independents 5, Akalis 2 and Europeans 8. Congress received 91 percent of non-Muslim votes. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In the elections to the provincial assemblies, Congress won 923 of 1585 seats, including 23 of the 38 labour seats, but was defeated by the Muslim League in the Muslim seats.
• In the NWFP, the League contested all 33 Muslim seats and won 15 of them. 19 Muslim seats were won by the Congress, and 58.75 percent of the Muslim vote went to the non-League parties.
• In Punjab, the League gained 73 seats, with its share of the Muslim vote being 65.10 percent. The League gained 83.6 percent of the Muslim vote in Bengal. It won 76 percent of the total Muslim vote in India. This was a sharp rise from the 4.8 percent vote in its tally in 1937.
• The elections of 1946 were a watershed. The results made it clear that the Congress represented the large masses of the country. It was equally clear, however, that the Muslim League spoke for most Muslims.
• The Congress was to go on to form governments in the provinces of Madras, Bombay, United Provinces, Bihar, Orissa, Central Provinces and Berar and NWFP. The League formed ministries in Bengal and Sind.
• In Punjab, after the 1946 elections, some negotiations between the Muslim League and Akalis were carried out with a possible coalition in mind. This had been unsuccessful, and Akalis joined with Unionists and Congress to form a coalition ministry. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Bharatiya Poshan Krishi Kosh

• Ministry of Women and Child Development along with Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF) announced the Bharatiya Poshan Krishi Kosh (BPKK) in New Delhi on 18th November, 2019.
• Bhartiya Poshan Krishi Kosh” project has two components – Development of a Food Atlas and Documentation of promising practices for Jan-Andolan for POSHAN Abhiyaan.
• The Agro-Food Atlas is to act as a repository of diverse crops across 127 agro-climatic zones of the country having three parts- crops currently being grown, agro-ecological conditions (soil, organic carbon content, ground water availability etc) and guidance on how a greater diversity of crops could be encouraged in a particular district or block to promote dietary diversity and nutrition.
• The project includes diverse data sources like National Sample Survey, Agri-Census, Soil Health Cards, ISRO’s Advanced Wide Field Sensor (AWiFS) and National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA’s) Moderate Resolution Imaging Spectro-Radio meter.
• Identification of promising practices with the help of a multi-disciplinary group of experts and developments of a tool kit to disseminate best strategies for Social and Behavioural Change Communication, specifi c to population groups in those regions is also a part of it.

Reserve position

• Reserve position in the IMF is the sum of (a) the “reserve tranche,” that is, the foreign currency (including Special Drawing Rights) amounts that a member country may draw from the IMF at short notice; and (b) any indebtedness of the IMF (under a loan agreement) in the General Resources Account that is readily available to the member country, including the reporting country’s lending to the IMF under the General Arrangement to Borrow (GAB) and the New Arrangement to Borrow (NAB).
• While a member country must present a declaration of balance of paymentsrelated need to make a purchase in the reserve tranche (reduction in reserve position), the IMF does not challenge a member’s request for reserve tranche purchases. Convertible currencies from a reserve tranche purchase may be made available within days.
• The reserve tranche represents the member’s unconditional drawing right on the IMF, created by the foreign exchange portion of the quota subscription, plus increase (decrease) through the IMF’s sale (repurchase) of the member’s currency to meet the demand for use of IMF resources by other members in need of balance of payments financing. It is accessible without any fees or economic reform conditions. A member’s reserve position in the IMF constitutes part of its reserve assets in the international investment position.

• Here is an excerpt from Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, composed by an anonymous Greek sailor (c. first century CE): ‘They (i.e., the traders from abroad) send large ships to the Indian markettowns on account of the great quantity and bulk of pepper and Malabathrum (possibly cinnamon, produced in these regions).
• There are imported here, in the first place, a great quantity of coin; topaz … antimony (a mineral used as a colouring substance), coral, crude glass, copper, tin, lead … There is exported pepper, which is produced in quantity in only one region near these markets … Besides this there are exported great quantities of fine pearls, ivory, silk cloth, … transparent stones of all kinds, diamonds and sapphires, and tortoise shells.’
• Archaeological evidence of a bead-making industry, using precious and semi-precious stones, has been found in Kodumanal (Tamil Nadu). It is likely that the local traders brought the stones mentioned in the Periplus from sites, such as these to the coastal ports.
• Majority of the sea trade share between India and the Roman empire wasthrough the Red Sea or the Erythraean Sea.

Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

• Article 32 of the Constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• It is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari to enforce them.
• The Supreme Court has been conferred with power to direct transfer of any civil or criminal case from one State High Court to another State High Court or from a Court subordinate to another State High Court.
• The Supreme Court, if satisfi ed that cases involving the same or substantially the same questions of law are pending before it and one or more High Courts or before two or more High Courts and that such questions are substantial questions of general importance, may withdraw a case or cases pending before the High Court or High Courts and dispose of all such cases itself.
• Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, International Commercial Arbitration can also be initiated in the Supreme Court.

A soil profile is a vertical cross-section of the soil from the ground surface to the underlying parent material. It is made up of layers, called horizons, that have differentphysical, chemical, and biological properties. The horizons are formed by the weathering of parent material, the addition of organic matter, and the movement of water and solutes through the soil.

• Pair 1 is incorrect: Horizon A is the topsoil, and it contains organic materials incorporated with mineral matter, nutrients, and water essential for plant growth. It is not characterized by loose parent material.
• Pair 2 is incorrect: Horizon B is a transition zone between Horizon A and Horizon C, containing matter derived from both above and below. It has some organic matter in it, although the mineral matter is noticeably weathered. It does not primarily consist of water.
• Pair 3 is incorrect: Horizon C’ is composed of the loose parent material. This layer is the first stage in the soil formation process and eventually forms the above two layers.

Underneath these three horizons is the rock which is also known as the parent rock or the bedrock.

Evolution and Sources of the Directive Principles of State Policy

• The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to the central and state governments of India, to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies.
• These provisions, contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, are not enforceable by any court, but the principles laid down therein are considered fundamental in the governance of the country, making it the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws to establish a just society in the country.

Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)

• WTO is a 164-member multilateral body which formulates rules for global exports and imports and adjudicates disputes between two or more than two countries on trade-related issues.
• India recently sent a letter to the General Council Chair to hold a virtual ministerial meeting on the response of WTO (WorldTrade Organisation) to the pandemic, including the proposal to waive certain provisions of the TRIPS agreement for COVID-19-related vaccines, therapeutics, and diagnostics.
• TRIPs came into effect in January 1995.
• It is a multilateral agreement on intellectual property (IP) rights such as copyright, industrial designs, patents and protection of undisclosed information or trade secrets.
• Compulsory licensing is one of the flexibilities in the field of patent protection agreed upon in the WTO Doha Declaration on the TRIPS Agreement and Public Health, in 2001.
• Compulsory licensing is when a government allows someone else to produce a patented product or process without the consent of the patent owner or plans to use the patentprotected invention itself.
• For compulsory licensing, it’s when the generic copy is produced mainly for the domestic market, not for export.
• It does not wave off the rights of the patent owner. The patent owner still has rights over the patent, including a right to be paid compensation for copies of the products made under the compulsory licence.
• The TRIPS Agreement does not specifically list the reasons that might be used to justify compulsory licensing.

However, the Doha Declaration on TRIPS and Public Health confirms that countries are free to determine the grounds for granting compulsory licences, and to determine what constitutes a national emergency.

• Light can be described both as a wave and as a particle. Wave-particle duality is a theory that describes that light has both wave and particle nature. The key difference between the wave and particle nature of light is that the wave nature of light explains that light can behave as an electromagnetic wave, whereas the particle nature of light explains that light consists of particles called photons.
• The wave nature of light shows up in the phenomena of interference, diffraction, and polarisation. On the other hand, in the photoelectric effect and Compton effect which involve energy and momentum transfer, radiation behaves as if it is made up of a bunch of particles – the photon.
• Photo-electric effect:
  • The emission of free electrons from a metal surface when light is shone on it, is called photoemission or the photoelectric effect. This effect led to the conclusion that light is made up of packets or quantum of energy. This strongly supported the particle nature of light and these particles were named photons. Thus, the wave-particle duality of light came into the picture.
  • Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• S1: The Pritzker Architecture Prize is specifically focused onhonoring excellence in architecture, not urban planning.
• S2: Established in1979 by the Pritzker family of Chicago,it recognizes living architects for their significant contributions to humanity and the built environment.
• S3: The laureate receives$100,000 and a bronze medallion.Riken Yamamoto, the ninth laureate from Japan, is known for projects like the Hiroshima Nishi Fire Station (2000) and the Koyasu Elementary School (2018), which emphasize transparency and interaction in architectural design.

• Wind-eroded plains are called reg, serir and hamada in the Sahara region.
• Regs are deserts of stones and pebbles. They form large plains with a very lunar appearance. In this type of plain, mushroom-like stones are found.
• Hamada refers to a nude stony flat surface. Hamada is formed due to joint actions of wind erosion and sheet erosion.
• Hamada or hammada is a desert high plain or plateau where deflation has removed the fine grained surface materials and left behind a surface of sand-scoured bedrock with or without a veneer of pebbles or boulders.

• Gandhi came back to active politics and attended the Calcutta Session of the Congress in December, 1928. He now began to consolidate the nationalist ranks. The first step was to reconcile the militant left wing of the Congress. Jawaharlal Nehru was now made the President of the Congress at the historic Lahore Session of 1929. This event had its romantic side too. Son had succeeded father (Motilal Nehru was the President of the Congress in 1928) as the official head of the national movement. The Lahore Session of the Congress gave voice to the new, militant spirit. It passed a resolution declaring Poorna Swaraj (CompleteIndependence) to be the Congress objective.
• On 31st December, 1929, was hoisted the newly adopted tri-colour flag of freedom. 26th January, 1930, was fixed as the first Independence Day, which was to be so celebrated every year with the people taking the pledge that it was ―a crime against man and God to submit any longer‖ to the British rule.
• The Congress Session also announced the launching of a Civil Disobedience Movement. But, it did not draw up a programme of struggle. That was left to Mahatma Gandhi, the Congress organization being placed at his disposal. Once again, the nationalist movement, led by Gandhi, faced the government. The country was again filled with hope and exhilaration, and the determination to be free.

• The International Solar Alliance (ISA) and the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO), with funding of the Government of France, are implementing the project „Structuring of an International Network of Solar Technology and Application Resource Centres (STAR C)”.
• The overall objective is to create a strong network of institutional capacities within ISA Member States to enhance quality infrastructure (QI) for the uptake of solar energy product and service markets, particularly in least developed countries (LDCs) and small island developing states (SIDS). The first phase of the STAR C project will focus on the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS), the East African Community (EAC) and the Pacific Community (SPC)/Pacific Island Forum (PIF).

• Statement 1 is incorrect: In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities while the State Governments issue only bonds or dated securities, which are called the State Development Loans (SDLs).
  • G-Secs carry practically no risk of default and, hence, are called Risk-free giltedged instruments.
• Statement 2 is correct: T-Bills are issued by the government and have no risks attached to them. They have high liquidity due to their short maturities of 14 days, 91 days, 182 days, and 364 days. T-Bills can be purchased by individuals, trusts, organizations, and banks.
• Statement 3 is correct: T-Bills have a relation with the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) in India. Banks in India are required to maintain a certain percentage of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) as liquid assets such as government securities, including T-Bills, to ensure liquidity and solvency.

Supplementary Notes:
Treasury Bills

• T-Bills are short-term debt instruments issued by the government to raise funds for a period of up to one year.
• They are zero-coupon bonds, which mean they do not pay any interest to the holder, but are issued at a discount to their face value.
• The difference between the face value and the discounted price is the interest earned by the holder of the T-Bill.

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)

• Water pollution by organic wastes is measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).
• Biological Oxygen Demand is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water.
• It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre of water.
• The higher value of BOD indicates low Dissolved Oxygen content of water.
• BOD is limited to biodegradable materials only; hence it is not considered a much reliable method of measuring pollution load in the water.
• Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a slightly better mode used to measure pollution load in the water. COD is the measure of oxygen equivalent to the requirement of oxidation of total organic matter (i.e. biodegradable and non-biodegradable) present in water.

• The Palas are celebrated as the patrons of many Buddhist monastic sites, the temples from that region are known to express the local Vanga style.
• Many local vernacular building traditions of Bengal also influenced the style of the temples with a tregion. Most prominent of these was the shape of the curving or sloping side of the bamboo roof of a Bengali hut. This feature was eventually even adopted in the Mughalbuildings and is known across North India as the Bangla roof.
• In the Mughal period and later, scores of terracotta brick temples were built across Bengal, in a unique style that had the elements of the local building techniques, seen in bamboo huts, which were combined with older forms reminiscent of the Pala period, and with the forms of arches and domes that were taken from the Islamicarchitecture.

• Statement-I is correct: The temperature distribution is generally shown on the map with the help of isotherms. The Isotherms are lines joining places having equal temperatures. In general, the effect of the latitude on temperature is well pronounced on the map, as the isotherms are generally parallel to the latitude. The deviation from this general trend is more pronounced in January than in July, especially in the northern hemisphere.
• Statement-II is correct: In the northern hemisphere, the land surface area is much larger than in the southern hemisphere. Hence, the effects of land mass and ocean currents are well-pronounced. In January, the isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. The effect of the ocean is well pronounced in the southern hemisphere. Here, the isotherms are more or less parallel to the latitudes, and the variation in temperature is more gradual than in the northern hemisphere.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

• The discussions of the Third Round Table Conference were held in December 1932. It led to the issue of a white paper in 1933, which declared that according to the new constitution, there would be a dyarchy at the center and secretary of state of India. Thus, The Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of the Government of India Act, 1935.
• The Government of India Act, of 1919 introduced a new system of dyarchy for the executive at the level of the provincial government. The 1935 act provided for the establishment of an All India Federation and a new system of government for the provinces on the basis of provincial autonomy. The federation was to be based on a union of the provinces of British India and the Princely states. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• According to The Government of India Act, 1935, the Governors-General and the Governors were to be appointed by the British government and were to be responsible for it. In the provinces, local power was to be increased and ministers were given the power to control all departments, however, the Governors could veto their legislative actions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Statement 1 is correct: ATMs set up, owned and operated by non-banks are called White Label ATMs(WLA). Nonbank ATM operators are authorised under the Payment & Settlement Systems Act, 2007 by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). For a customer, using a WLA is just like using an ATM of any bank. The rationale to allow non-bank entities to set up WLAs has been to increase the geographical spread of ATMs for increased/ enhanced customer service, especially in semi-urban / rural areas.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The cards issued by banks in India can be used at any ATM / WLA in the country. The ATM / ATM cum debit cards, credit cards and prepaid cards, as permitted by the issuer, can be used at ATMs/WLAs for various transactions. In addition to dispensing cash, ATMs / WLAs may offer many other services / facilities to customers. Some of such services include:
  • Account Information
  • Cash Deposit
  • Regular Bill Payment
  • Purchase of Re-load Vouchers for Mobiles (not permitted at WLAs)
  • Mini / Short Statement Generation
  • PIN Change
  • Request for Cheque Book

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

• Context: The Great Barrier Reef is experiencing its fifth mass coral bleaching event in eight years, driven by global heating and an El Niño climate pattern.
• Using a remote-controlled submarine, researchers at Smithsonian Institution, Washington, discovered five new species of black corals living as deep as 2,500 feet (760 metres) below the surface in the Great Barrier Reef and Coral Sea off the coast of Australia.
• Black corals can be found growing both in shallow waters and down to depths of over 26,000 feet (8,000 metres), and some individual corals can live for over 4,000 years.
• Unlike their colourful, shallow-water cousins that rely on the sun and photosynthesis for energy, black corals are filter feeders and eat tiny zooplankton that are abundant in deep waters.
• Similarly to shallow-water corals that build colourful reefs full of fish, black corals act as important habitats where fish and invertebrates feed and hide from predators in what is otherwise a mostly barren sea floor.

• A sound wave is a vibration that is transmitted through a medium, such as air, water, and metals. Ultrasonic wave (or ultrasound) is defined as “inaudible sound with high frequency for humans” the frequency of which generally exceeds 20 kHz. Ultrasound is sound waves with frequencies higher than the upper audible limit of human hearing.
• The following technologies are based on ultrasound waves:
  • Echocardiography (ECHO): It is used to examine the heart. It is a safe and noninvasive technique. Echocardiography can be used to detect whether the heart muscle is moving normally and how much blood the heart is pumping out with each beat. This procedure can also detect abnormalities in the heart's structure, such as defective heart valves, birth defects (such as holes in the walls between the heart's chambers), and enlargement of the heart's walls or chambers, as occurs in people with high blood pressure, heart failure, or impairment of the heart's muscular walls (cardiomyopathy). Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Ultrasound scanner: An ultrasound scan is used to examine internal body structures. Ultrasound imaging sends out (emits) high-frequency sound waves, directed at the tissue being examined, and records the reflected sound or echoes to create an image. An ultrasound scan is generally non-invasive.
  • Ultrasonography: It uses high-frequency sound (ultrasound) waves to produce images of internal organs and other tissues. A device called a transducer converts electrical current into sound waves, which are sent into the body’s tissues. Sound waves bounce off structures in the body and are reflected back to the transducer, which converts the waves into electrical signals. A computer converts the pattern of electrical signals into an image, which is displayed on a monitor and recorded as a digital computer image. No x-rays are used, so there is no radiation exposure during ultrasonography. So, it is used for the examination of the fetus during pregnancy. Hence option 1 is correct.
• RADAR: The term RADAR was coined in 1940 by the United States Navy as an acronym for radio detection and ranging. Radar is a radiolocation system that uses radio waves (and not sound waves) to determine the distance (ranging), angle, and radial velocity of objects relative to the site. It is used to detect and track aircraft, ships, spacecraft, guided missiles, and motor vehicles, and map weather formations, andterrain. A radar system consists of a transmitter producing electromagnetic waves in the radio or microwave domain, a transmitting antenna, a receiving antenna (often the same antenna is used for transmitting and receiving), and a receiver and processor to determine the properties of the objects. Hence option 3 is not correct.

• Akira is swiftly becoming one of the fastest-growing ransomware families thanks to its use of double extortion tactics, a ransomware-as-a-service (RaaS) distribution model, and unique payment options. The Akira RaaS group performs double extortion tactics and steals victims’ critical data prior to encrypting devices and files. Interestingly, according to reports, Akira operators provide victims the option to pay for either file decryption or data deletion; they don’t force victims into paying for both. According to reports, ransom demands for Akira typically range from US$200,000 to over US$4 million.

• Recent Context: Violations of the Wildlife (Protection) Act and the Forest Rights Act have exacerbated conflicts in Tiger Reserves between the forest bureaucracy and forest-dwellers.
• In 1973, The Government of India introduced Project Tiger with 9 tiger reserves. Today there are 54 tiger reserves covering 78135 sq. km area. The Government adopted scientific approach to tiger conservation, which has 3 main components - Core/ Critical Tiger Habitats (CTHs), Buffer area to absorb external pressure and Corridor managing the “source-sink dynamics” by restoring habitat connectivity.
• As of now the CTHs covers 42913 sq. km area, which is 54% of total tiger reserves areas. The Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve is India's largest Tiger reserves and spreading over 3727 Sq. Km. The Krishna river traverses through this tiger reserves. The CTH area in this tiger reserves largely consists of the Rajiv Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary ( 36.62%), with closed and opened forests. Also, it has the largest area under Critical Tiger Habitat. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• In March 2017, the NTCA ( National Tiger Conservation Authority) refused to recognise rights under Forest Rights Act, 2006 (FRA). Later in 2018 the Environment Ministry issued the guidelines about recognition of customary and traditional forest rights under FRA in Critical Tiger Habitat. After this NTCA withdrew its earlier order. Thus now rights under FRA are recognised inside CTHs. Even as per NTCA, 574 villages are present in Core/Critical Tiger Habitats. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Hence option (b) is the correct option.

• Nano Urea is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary Agri-input which provides nitrogen to plants. Nano Urea is a sustainable option for farmers towards smart agriculture and combat climate change.
• These fulfil the plant nutrient requirement as a fertilizer since Nano urea is bio-available to plants because of its desirable particle size about 20-50 nm and more surface area (10,000 times over 1 mm urea prill) and number of particles (55,000 nitrogen particles over 1 mm urea prill). Hence statement II is not correct.
• Hence, Nano Urea increases its availability to crop by more than 80% resulting in higher Nutrient Use efficiency. In addition to this, Nano urea helps in minimizing the environmental footprint by reducing the loss of nutrients from agriculture fields in the form of leaching and gaseous emissions which used to cause environmental pollution and climate change. Hence statement I is correct.
• Nano urea (liquid) contains 4% N as encapsulated nitrogen analogues or forms embedded on an organic matrix. It has a small size (20-50 nm); and more surface area and number of particles per unit area than conventional urea.

• The British Government summoned, in London, in 1930, the First Round Table Conference of the Indian leaders and the spokesmen of the British Government to discuss the Simon Commission Report. But, the National Congress boycotted the Conference and its proceedings proved abortive; for a conference on the Indian affairs without the Congress was like staging Ramlila without Rama.
• The government now made attempts to negotiate an agreement with the Congress, so that it would attend the Round Table Conference. Finally, Lord Irwin and Gandhiji negotiated a settlement in March, 1931. The government agreed to release those political prisoners who had remained non-violent and conceded the right to make salt for consumption, as also the right to peaceful picketing of liquor and foreign cloth shops; the Congress suspended the Civil Disobedience Movement and agreed to take part in the Second Round Table Conference. Many of the Congress leaders, particularly the younger, left-wing section, were opposed to the GandhiIrwin Pact, for the government had not accepted even one of the major nationalist demands. It had not agreed even to the demand that the death sentence of Bhagat Singh and his two comrades be commuted to life imprisonment. But Gandhiji was convinced that Lord Irwin and the Britishwere sincere in their desire to negotiate on Indian demands.
• Gandhi prevailed upon the Karachi Session of the Congress to approve the agreement. Gandhiji went to England in September, 1931, to attend the Second Round Table Conference. But, in spite of his powerful advocacy, the British Government refused to concede the basic nationalist demand for freedom on the basis of the immediate grant of Dominion Status.
• In the meanwhile, peasant unrest had developed in several parts of the country, as the peasants found that the fall in the prices of the agricultural products, because of world depression, had made the burden of land revenue and rent unbearable. In Uttar Pradesh, the Congress agitated for reduction of rent and prevention of eviction of the tenants. In December, 1931, the Congress started a no-rent, no-tax, campaign. In the North-West Frontier Province, the Khudai Khidmatgars were leading a peasant movement against the government‘s land revenue policy. On 24th December, their leader, Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, was arrested.
• Peasant struggles were also developing in Bihar, Andhra, Uttar Pradesh, Bengal and Punjab. On his return to India, Gandhiji had no choice but to resume the Civil Disobedience Movement. The government, now headed by the new Viceroy, Lord Willingdon, who believed that a major error had been made in signing a truce with the Congress, was this time fully determined and prepared to crush the Congress.
• On 4th January, 1932, Gandhiji and other leaders of the Congress were again arrested and the Congress declared illegal. The normal working of laws was suspended and the administration carried on through special ordinances. The police indulged in naked terror and committed innumerable atrocities on the freedomfighters. Over a lakh of Satyagrahis were arrested; the lands, houses and other property of thousands were confiscated. Nationalist literature was banned, while the nationalist newspapers were again placed under censorship.
• Government repression succeeded in the end, helped as it was by the differences among the Indian leaders on communal and other questions. The Civil Disobedience Movement gradually waned. The Congress officially suspended the Movement in May, 1933, and withdrew it in May, 1934. Gandhiji, once again, withdrew from active politics. Once again many political activists felt despair.
• Subhash Bose and Vithalbhai Patel had declared that ―the Mahatma as a political leader has failed.‖ Willingdon, the Viceroy, had also declared : The Congress is in a definitely less favourable position than in 1930, and has lost its hold on the public.‖ But in reality, this was not so. True, the Movement had not succeeded in winning freedom, but it had succeeded in further politicizing the people, and in further deepening the social roots of the freedom struggle.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Both and community reserves and Conservation Reserves are the outcome of the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 in 2002.
Conservation reserves and community reserves of India

• Statement 2 is correct: Conservation reserves and community reserves in India are terms denoting protected areas of India which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India.
• Such areas are designated as conservation areas if they are uninhabited and completely owned by the Government of India but used for subsistence by communities and community areas if part of the lands is privately owned.
• These protected area categories were first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002 − the amendment to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. These categories were added because of reduced protection in and around existing or proposed protected areas due to private ownership of land, and land use.
• Statement 3 is correct: Tiruppadaimarathur conservation reserve in Tirunelveli, Tamil Nadu was the first conservation reserve established in 2005.
• The State Government may notify any community land or private land as a Community Reserve, provided that the members of that community or individuals concerned are agreeable to offer such areas for protecting the fauna and flora, as well as their traditions, cultures and practices.

• The early temple was a small square room, called the Garbhagriha, with a single doorway for the worshipper to enter and offer worship to the image.
• Gradually, a tall structure, known as the Shikhara, was built over the central shrine. The temple walls were often decorated with sculpture.
• Later, the temples became far more elaborate – with assembly halls, huge walls and gateways, and arrangements for supplying water.
• One of the unique features of the early temples was that some of these were hollowed out of huge rocks, as artificial caves. The tradition of building artificial caves was an old one.

• Electro-cardiograph is used to obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG). ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle.
• To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrical leads (one to each wrist and to the left ankle) that continuously monitor the heart activity.
• For a detailed evaluation of the heart’s function, multiple leads are attached to the chest region.
• Each peak in the ECG is identified with a letter from P to T that corresponds to a specific electrical activity of the heart.
• The P-wave represents the electrical excitation (or depolarisation) of the atria, which leads to the contraction of both the atria. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The QRS complex represents the depolarisation of the ventricles, which initiates the ventricular contraction. The contraction starts shortly after Q and marks the beginning of the systole. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The T-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state (repolarization). The end of the T-wave marks the end of systole. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• By counting the number of QRS complexes that occur in a given time period, one can determine the heart beat rate of an individual.
• Since the ECGs obtained from different individuals have roughly the same shape for a given lead configuration, any deviation from this shape indicates a possible abnormality or disease. Hence, it is of a great clinical significance.

Invasive Species

• An alien plant also referred to as exotic, introduced, foreign, non-indigenous or nonnative, is one that has been introduced by humans intentionally or otherwise through human agency or accidentally from one region to another. An alien plant that has escaped from its original ecosystem and is reproducing on its own in the regional flora is considered a naturalized species.
• The global extent and rapid increase in invasive species is hom*ogenising the world’s flora and fauna and is recognized as a primary cause of global biodiversity loss.
• Bio-invasion may be considered as a form of biological pollution and significant component on global change and one of the major causes of species extinction.

Characteristic features of Invasive species

• Invasive species possess characteristic features like “pioneer species” in varied landscapes, tolerant of a wide range of soil and weather conditions, generalist in distribution, produces copious amounts of seed that disperse easily, grows aggressiveroot systems, short generation time, high dispersal rates, long flowering and fruiting periods, broad native range, abundant in native range.
• Preliminary data from one interesting study shows that invasive species are likely to have relatively small amounts of DNA in their cell nuclei. Apparently, the cells in these plants are able to divide and multiply more quickly and consequently the entire plant can grow more rapidly than species with higher cellular DNA content. This gives them a leg up in disturbed sites.

Joint Public service Commission (JPSC)

• The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India.
• It is an independent constitutional body.
• The provisions regarding the composition of UPSC, appointment and removal of its members and the powers and functions of UPSC are provided in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323.
• Parallel to the UPSC at the Centre, there is a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) in the state.
• The provisions regarding the composition of SPSC, appointment and removal of its members and the powers and functions of SPSC are provided in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323.
• A JSPSC is a statutory body. It is not a constitutional body. After the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966, the two states of Punjab and Haryana had a JSPSC for a short period.
• The President appoints the chairman as well as the members of a JSPSC.
• In 1926 on the recommendation of Lee Commission (1924), the Federal Public Service Commission was established.
• Government of India Act, 1935 provided for Central Public Service Commissions, State Public Service Commission and Joint Public Service Commission.
• The Constitution makes provision for a JPSC to cater to needs of two or more states.
• JPSC is formed by an act of parliament. Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body.
• It submits reports to the concerned State Governors.
• President decides composition, tenure, conditions of service, removal. Chairman and Members have a term of six years or till 62, whichever is earlier.
• They can be suspended or removed by the president, or they can resign by writing to the president. Constitutional Provisions:
• Article 315: Constitution of Public Service Commissions (PSC) for the Union and for the States of India.
• Article 316: Appointment and term of offi ce of members of UPSC as well as SPSC.
  Article 317: Removal and suspension of a member of both the UPSC and SPSC.
• Article 318: Power to make regulations for the conditions of service of members and staff of the Commission.
• Article 319: Prohibition of holding the offi ce by members of Commission upon ceasing to be such members.
• Article 320: States the functions of Public Service Commissions.
• Article 321: Power to extend the functions of Public Service Commissions.
• Article 322: Expenses of Public Service Commissions. Article 323: Reports of Public Service Commissions.

• In 1897, Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Mission to carry on humanitarian relief and social work. It laid emphasis not on personal salvation but on good or social service.
• Atmiya Sabha was established in Calcutta in 1815 by Ram Mohan Roy. The association conducted debates and discussions on philosophical subjects, as well as advocated for free and collective thinking and social reform.
• Truth seeker society (Satya Shodhak) was founded by Jyotiba Phule in 1873 with the leadership of the samaj coming from the backward classes, malis, telis, kunbis, sans, dhangar.

Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Biodiversity

• Species diversity: The diversity at the species level, for example, the Western Ghats have a greater amphibian species diversity than the Eastern Ghats.
• Ecological diversity: At the ecosystem level, India, for instance, with its deserts,rain forests, mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries, and alpine meadows has greater ecosystem diversity than a Scandinavian country like Norway.

Lower judiciary: Appointment, Jurisdictions and Power

• The hierarchy of courts that lie subordinate to High Courts are referred to as Subordinate Courts. It is for the State Governments to enact for the creation of Subordinate Courts.
• The nomenclature of these subordinate courts differs from State to State but broadly there is uniformity in terms of the organisational structure (i.e. the hierarchy remains the same for every State at the most).
• Below the High Courts, there are District Courts for each district, and has appellate jurisdiction in the district.
• Under the District Courts, there are the lower courts such as the Additional District Court, Sub Court, Munsiff Magistrate Court, Court of Special Judicial Magistrate of I class, Court of Special Judicial Magistrate of II class, Court of Special Munsiff Magistrate for Factories Act and labour laws, etc.
• Below the Subordinate Courts, at the grassroot level, are the Panchayat Courts (Nyaya Panchayat, Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Adalat, etc.). These are, however, not considered as courts under the purview of the criminal courts jurisdiction. District Courts can take cognizance of original matters under special status.
• The Governor, in consultation with the High Court, makes appointments pertaining to the District Courts.
• Appointment of persons other than the District Judges to the judicial service of a State is made by the Governor in accordance with the rules made by him in that behalf after consultation with the High Court and the State Public Service Commission.
• The High Court exercises administrative control over the District Courts and the courts subordinate to them, in matters as posting, promotions and granting of leave to all persons belonging to the State Judicial Service.

Balance of Payments (BoP)

• It records the transactions in goods, services and assets between residents of a country with the rest of the world for a specified time period typically a year.
• There are two main accounts in the BoP – the current account and the capital account.
• The current account records exports and imports in goods and services and transfer payments.
• The capital account records all international purchases and sales of assets such as money, stocks, bonds, etc.
• When exports exceed imports, there is a trade surplus and when imports exceed exports there is a trade defi cit.
• Trade-in services is denoted as invisible trade (because they are not seen to cross national borders) and it includes both factor income (net income from compensation of employees and net investment income, the latter equals, the interest, profits and dividends on our assets abroad minus the income foreigners earn on assets they own in India) and net non-factor income (shipping, banking, insurance, tourism, software services, etc.).
• Transfer payments are receipts which the residents of a country receive ‘for free’, without having to make any present or future payments in return.
• They consist of remittances, gifts, and grants. They could be official or private.
• The balance of exports and imports of goods is referred to as the trade balance.

• The vulnerability of a species to extinction depends on a wide variety of factors, some of which are:
  • Species with narrow geographical ranges. Such locally endemic species are highly susceptible to extinction.
  • Seasonal migratory species are depended on two or more distinct habitat types, and are unable to survive if either habitat is destroyed.
  • Species low in genetic variability: Adapting to new environments and changing conditions depend on the availability of genetic diversity.
  • Species with small population sizes.
  • Species that need large home range, like the Bengal Tiger. Usually, largesized animals require larger ranges.

• Context: The International Commission on Stratigraphy rejected the proposal of the Anthropocene epoch after a committee of 18 scientists recently voted against it.
• S1 is incorrect. The Anthropocene epoch is characterized by a significant increase, rather than a decrease, in human impact on the environment. This includes factors such as climate change, habitat destruction, pollution, and species extinction driven by human activities.
• S2 is correct. The term “Anthropocene” was indeed coined to emphasize the profound influence of human activities on Earth’s geological and ecological processes. It signifies the recognition that human actions have become a dominant force shaping the planet’s systems and landscapes.
• S3 is incorrect. The Anthropocene epoch is associated with increased biodiversity loss and heightened rates of species extinction, largely due to human-induced factors such as habitat destruction, pollution, and climate change. Thus, it does not mark a period of decreased biodiversity and species extinction rates.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: Both photosynthesis and respiration takes place in the photic zone.
• Photic zone
  • It is the upper layer of the aquatic ecosystems, up to which light penetrates and within which photosynthetic activity is confined.
  • The depth of this zone depends on the transparency of water. Both photosynthesis and respiration activity takes place.
  • Photic (or “euphotic”) zone is the lighted and usually well-mixed portion that extends from the lake surface down to where the light level is 1% of that at the surface.
• Aphotic zone
  • The lower layers of the aquatic ecosystems, where light penetration and plant growth are restricted form the aphotic zone. Only respiration activity takes place.
  • Aphotic zone is positioned below the littoral and photic zones to bottom of the lake where light levels are too low for photosynthesis.
  • Respiration occurs at all depths so the aphotic zone is a region of oxygen consumption. This deep, unlit region is also known as the profundal zone.

• Karst is a type of landscape where the dissolving of the bedrock has created sinkholes, sinking streams, caves, springs, and other characteristic features. Karst is associated with soluble rock types such as limestone, marble, and gypsum. In general, a typical karst landscape forms when muchof the water falling on the surface interacts with and enters the subsurface through cracks, fractures, and holes that have been dissolved into the bedrock. After travelling underground, sometimes for long distances, this water is then discharged from springs, many of which are cave entrances.
• Karst is ideal for storing water as an aquifer and provides vast amounts of clean drinking water to people, plants, and animals. Because of the porous nature of karst, water flows quickly through it and receives little filtration.

• Statement 1 is correct: The members were elected through indirect elections by the provincial assemblies.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Constituent Assembly aimed to ensure the participation of all sections of society.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Assembly aimed to establish a balance between a strong central government and the autonomy of states, resulting in a quasifederal structure.

Indian Constituent Assembly

• The Indian Constituent Assembly played a pivotal role in shaping the Constitution of India, which is hailed as one of the most comprehensive and influential constitutional documents in the world.
• The Constituent Assembly was established to draft and adopt the Constitution, providing a framework for independent India after it gained freedom from British colonial rule.

Composition:

• The Constituent Assembly of India consisted of 389 members, representing diverse regions, communities, and political ideologies. The members were elected through indirect elections by the provincial assemblies.
• The Assembly included prominent leaders from various political parties, along with representatives from princely states, minority communities, and women.

Features:

• Inclusive Representation: The Constituent Assembly aimed to ensure the participation of all sections of society. It included members from different backgrounds, such as lawyers, intellectuals, social activists, and politicians, fostering a diverse and inclusive assembly.
• Sovereign Body: The Constituent Assembly derived its authority from the Indian people, acting as a sovereign body entrusted with the responsibility of framing the Constitution.
• Comprehensive Deliberations: The Assembly engaged in exhaustive discussions and debates on various aspectsof the Constitution, considering the diverse viewpoints and aspirations of the people of India.

Key Debates:

• Fundamental Rights: The Constituent Assembly extensively deliberated on the inclusion of fundamental rights in the Constitution. The debates focused on striking a balance between individual rights and social responsibilities, eventually leading to the incorporation of fundamental rights that guaranteed certain basic freedoms and protections to all citizens.
• Form of Government: Another crucial debate centered on the form of government for independent India. The Assembly discussed the merits of a parliamentary system and a presidential system, eventually opting for a parliamentary form of government with a President as the head of state.
• Center-State Relations: The issue of federalism and the distribution of powers between the central and state governments were significant topics of debate. The Assembly aimed to establish a balance between a strong central government and the autonomy of states, resulting in a quasifederal structure.

• Weathering is the first step in the formation of soil from rocks. Weathering processes are responsible for breaking down the rocks into smaller fragments and preparing the way for the formation of regolith and soils. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Erosion cannot be significant if the rocks are not weathered. That means weathering aids mass wasting, erosion and reduction of relief and changes in landforms are a consequence of erosion. Weathering is an important process in the formation of soils. Hence, options 2 and 4 are correct.
• Weathering of rocks and deposits helps in the enrichment and concentrations of certain valuable ores of iron, manganese, aluminium, copper etc. It also results in the transportation of minerals from one region to another resulting in the loss of minerals in a particular region. Hence, option 3 is correct.

• The root cells need oxygen to generate energy. Roots take up air from the air space present between the soil particles.
• When a potted plant is overwatered, these air spaces are filled up with water and roots are starved for oxygen. Eventually, the plant dies.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• Statement 1 is correct: Information on the music of the sultanate period is limited. The important phase in the development of music during this period belongs to the time of Amir Khusrau. He is credited with the creation of a new musical instrument, the sitar, which was a combination of the Indian vina and the Iranian tambura.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It was during the period of Amir Khusrau that the qawwali style is said to have developed. He is also credited for the development of many modern ragas like aiman, gora and sanam. Minhaj-i Siraj was a 13th-century Persian historian born in 1193 in Ghor region in modern Afghanistan. Tabaqat-i Nasiri, named for Sultan Nasir-udDin, is an elaborate history of the Islamic world written in Persian by Minhaj-i Siraj Juzjani and completed in 1260. It consists of 23 volumes and is written in a blunt straightforward style.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Turks are credited with bringing musical instruments like rabab and sarangi into South Asia.

Rabab
The rabab is a stringed instrument with a skincovered resonator that can be bowed or plucked depending on performance tradition. It is found in various forms throughout North Africa, the Near East, South Asia, and Central Asia. Similar to the way the setar and the vina were adapted to eventually become what is known today as the sitar, the rabab was adapted to become the sarod.

• Option (a) is correct: Decomposers, which break down dead organic matter and recycle nutrients back into the ecosystem, can have signifi cant populations, but they are usually smaller than the populations of producers. Their role in the food chain is essential for nutrient cycling, but their numbers are generally not as large as the populations of producers.

Food Chain

• In a food chain, the largest population is typically found among the producers, which are the organisms that can produce their own food through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis.
• Producers, such as plants or algae, form the foundation of the food chain by converting sunlight or inorganic compounds into energy-rich organic molecules. This energy is then passed on to other organisms in the food chain.
• The population size of primary consumers, which are herbivores that feed directly on producers, is usually smaller compared to the producer population.
• Similarly, the population size of secondary consumers, which are carnivores that feed on primary consumers, is typically smaller than that of the primary consumers.

Electoral Bond is a bearer Banking Instrument to be used for funding eligible Political Parties. An eligible Political Party is one registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly.

1. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Electoral Bonds shall be valid for Fifteen Calendar Days from the Date of Issue. For example, an Electoral Bond issued on 1st October 2023 will be valid up to 15th October 2023. The Electoral Bonds can be redeemed only by an eligible Political Party by depositing the same in their Designated Bank Account maintained with an Authorised Bank.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no limit on the number of bonds an Individual or company can purchase. State Bank of India deposits bonds that a political party hasn’tencashed within fifteen days into the prime minister’s relief fund.
3. Statement 3 is correct: The Electoral Bonds shall be issued in the denomination of Rs1000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1,00,000, Rs 10,00,000 and Rs 1,00,00,000. All payments for the issuance of the Electoral Bonds will be accepted in Indian Rupees only. Electoral Bonds can be purchased either Singly or Jointly with other individuals but not more than three Applicants per Application Form. No name(s) will be printed on the Bond.

Aggregate Supply (AS)

• Aggregate Supply (AS) refers to the total quantity of goods and services that producers are willing and able to supply at a given price level and within a specifi c time period.
• Aggregate supply in India refers to the total quantity of goods and services that all fi rms in the country are willing and able to produce at a given price level and within a specifi c time period.
• Several factors influence aggregate supply, including labor availability, capital stock, technology, and natural resources.
• For instance, if there is an increase in labor productivity due to technological advancements, fir ms can produce more output with the same amount of resources.
• Similarly, if the government invests in infrastructure development, it can enhance the country’s productive capacity.
• These factors, along with others like government policies and business regulations, shape the aggregate supply and impact the overall economic performance of India.

National Anti-Profi teering Authority (NAA)

• CGST Act, 2017 mandates a 3-tier structure for the investigation and adjudication of the complaints regarding profiteering.
• The National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA) was constituted under Section 171 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 to ensure that the reduction in rate of tax or the benefit of input tax credit is passed on to the recipient by way of commensurate reduction in prices.
• The Authority’s main function is to ensure that the registered suppliers under GST law are not profiteering by charging higher prices from recipients in the name of GST. The legal mandate of NAA is to examine and check such profiteering activities and recommend punitive actions including cancellation of Registration.
• NAA shall consist of a Chairperson who holds or has held a post equivalent in rank to Secretary to the GoI and four technical members.
• The government has recently notified the rule changes, inserting a provision in the goods and services tax rules to allow NAA to direct the DAGP to further a probe if there is reason to believe that there has been contravention of norms in respect of goods or services not covered in the latter’s report.
• It also empowers NAA to summon any person in relation to an inquiry which was earlier limited to the DGAP or its officers only.
• The tenure of National Anti-Profiteering Authority has also been extended by 2 years.

Directive Principles

• The principles have been inspired by the Directive Principles given in the Constitution of Ireland and also by the principles of Gandhism; and relate to social justice, economic welfare, foreign policy, and legal and administrative matters.
• They aim at achieving social and economic democracy for establishing a welfare state. Directive Principles are classifi ed under the following categories: Gandhian, economic and socialistic, political and administrative, justice and legal, environmental, protection of monuments and peace and security.

Fly Ash

• Fly ash is the finely divided residue that results from the combustion of pulverized coal and is transported from the combustion chamber by exhaust gases.
• It is produced from the combustion of coal in electric utility or industrial boilers, produced by coal-fired electric and steam generating plants.
• It consists primarily of oxides of silicon, aluminium, iron, and calcium.
• Magnesium, potassium, sodium, titanium, and sulphur are also present to a lesser degree.

• Pair 1 is incorrect: Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan Plateau. Along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghat, a long stretch of the area is occupied by red loamy soil. Yellow and red soils are also found in parts of Odisha and Chhattisgarh and in the southern parts of the middle Ganga plain.
• Pair 2 is correct: Laterite soils develop in areas with high temperatures and high rainfall. These are the results of intense leaching due to tropical rains. Laterite soils are commonly found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, and the hilly areas of Odisha and Assam.
• Pair 3 is correct: Peaty soil is found in the areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity, where there is a good growth of vegetation. It occurs widely in the northern part of Bihar, southern part of Uttarakhand and the coastal areas of West Bengal, Odisha and Tamil Nadu.

• Statement 1 is correct: Navayana School is considered to be a new branch of Buddhism propounded by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. It is different from the traditionally recognised branches of Theravada, Mahayana and Vajrayana and rejects them.
• Statement 2 is correct: It discards the practises and precepts such as renouncing monks and monastism, karma, rebirth in the afterlife, samsara, meditation, enlightenment and the Four Noble Truths considered to be the foundation of Buddhist traditions.
• Statement 3 is correct: It radically reinterprets Buddhism by revising the original teachings of Buddha to be about class struggle and social equality.

• The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character haveoccurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference.
• It is the principle tool under the Ramsar convention for highlighting wetlands sites in need of priority conservation status. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar Database and is subject to continuous review.
• It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
• At present, 46 sites are listed in Montreux Record in the world.
• At present 2 Indian sites are listed under it. (Loktak Lake, Manipur and Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan)
• In 1993 Chilka lake was also listed in Montreux record due to problem of Siltation, But later in 2002, it was removed from the list as problem tackled by govt actions 2020.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Asian Development Bank (ADB), with an international partnership of its member countries, was established in 1966 andhas headquarters at Manila, the Philippines. The Bank is engaged in promoting the economic and social progress of its developing member countries in the Asia-Pacific region.
Its principal functions are as follows

• To make loans and equity investments for the economic and social advancement of its developing member countries;
• To provide technical assistance for the preparation and execution of development projects and programmes and advisory services;
• To respond to the requests for assistance in coordinating development policies and plans in developing member countries, and
• To respond to the requests for assistance and coordinate the development policies and plans of developing member countries.

Statement 2 is incorrect: India is a founding member of ADB. However, India is not the largest shareholder of ADB. As of 31 December 2022, ADB’s five largest shareholders are Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People’s Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%).
Statement 3 is incorrect: Membership in AIIB shall be open to members of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) or the Asian Development Bank (ADB).

• Statement 1 and 2 is correct: The Ministry of Jal Shakti released India’s first water bodies census, a comprehensive data base of ponds, tanks, lakes, and reservoirs in the country. The census was conducted in 2018-19, and enumerated more than 2.4 million water bodies across all states and Union Territories. All natural or man-made units bounded on all sides with some or no masonry work used for storing water for irrigation or other purposes (e.g. industrial, pisciculture, domestic/drinking, recreation, religious, ground water recharge etc.) will be treated as water bodies in this Census.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The First census of water bodies was conducted with reference year 2017-18 across the country in 33 States/UTsexcept Daman & Diu, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Lakshadweep. Maharashtra State is the leading state for water conservation schemes Whereas West Bengal has highest number of ponds & reservoirs, whereas Andhra Pradesh has highest number of tanks, Tamil Nadu has highest number of lakes.

• Option (b) is correct: The correct chronological order of the given economic events in the development of Indian banking system is:
• Enactment of the Banking Regulation Act (1949): The Banking Regulation Act was enacted in 1949 to regulate the banking sector in India and ensure the safety of depositors’ money. The Act defi nes the legal framework for banking in India, including provisions for the establishment of new banks, the licensing and operation of banks, and the regulation of banking operations. The RBI is responsible for enforcing the provisions of the Act and ensuring the soundness and stability of the banking system.
• Nationalization of fourteen major commercial banks (1969): The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1969, was passed by the Indian parliament, which nationalized 14 major Indian banks, followed by an additional 6 banks in 1980. This move was aimed at increasing the reach of banking services and making them more accessible to the masses. The nationalized banks were also required to focus on priority sectors, such as agriculture, small-scale industries, and exports, in line with the government’s developmental goals.
• Establishment of Regional Rural Banks (1975): The Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established in 1975 as a key initiativeto provide banking services to rural areas in India. The RRBs were set up with the objective of providing credit and other banking facilities to small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, artisans, and small entrepreneurs in rural areas. The RRBs have been instrumental in increasing the level of financial inclusion in rural areas and providing credit to the underserved sections of society.
• Introduction of Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT) system (1994): The Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT) system was introduced in 1994 as a means of enabling electronic transfer of funds between banks. The EFT system enables customers to transfer funds electronically from one bank account to another, without the need for physical movement of cash or checks. This has resulted in a significant reduction in the time and cost of transactions and has made banking services more efficient and accessible to customers. EFT has also played a significant role in promoting e-commerce and online banking in India.

Supplementary Notes:
Development of Indian banking system

• Nationalization of banks: The Government of India issued the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Ordinance in 1969 and nationalized the 14 largest commercial banks in India at that time.
• Allahabad Bank
• Bank of India
• Bank of Baroda
• Bank of Maharashtra
• Central Bank of India
• Canara Bank
• Dena Bank
• Indian Overseas Bank
• Indian Bank
• Punjab National Bank
• Syndicate Bank
• Union Bank of India
• United Bank
• UCO Bank
• Liberalization (1991): To increase the involvement of private and foreign investors, the Government implemented economic liberalization in 1991, which resulted in a significant change in its economic policies.

• Statement 1 is correct: The concept of Standing Deposit Facility was first recommended by the Urjit Patel committee report in 2014.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The main purpose of SDF is to reduce the excess liquidity in the system, and control inflation. It allows the RBI to absorb liquidity (deposit) from commercial banks without giving government securities in return to the banks.
• Statement 3 is correct: One of the key features of the SDF is that it allows banks to park their funds without the need for any collateral, which makes it an attractive option for banks to manage their short term liquidity needs.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: SDF will be at the discretion of banks and will be available on all days of the week, throughout the year unlike repo and reverse repo which are available at the discretion of RBI.

Supplementary Notes:
Standing Deposit Facility

• A Standing Deposit Facility is an overnight deposit facility that allows banks to park excess liquidity (money) and earn interest.
• This is much more efficient than the Reverse Repo arrangement where G- secs had to be sold-and-repurchased to absorb liquidity and pay interest.
• The SDF is also a financial stability tool in addition to its role in liquidity management.
• The SDF rate will be 25 bps below the policy rate (Repo rate), and it will be applicable to overnight deposits at this stage.
• It would, however, retain the flexibility to absorb liquidity of longer tenors as and when the need arises, with appropriate pricing.

Option (c) is correct: Zooplankton then consume the phytoplankton, occupying the second trophic level.
Trophic Level

• Phytoplankton makes up the first trophic level as the primary producers, utilizing sunlight and nutrients to produce organic matter through photosynthesis.
• Zooplankton then consumes the phytoplankton, occupying the second trophic level. They serve as a vital link in the transfer of energy from the lower trophic levels to higher trophic levels in the lake’s food web.
• The energy from zooplankton is further transferred to the third trophic level, which can consist of small fish that feed on zooplankton or larger fish that consume smaller fish.

• The peasant movement played an important role in the fight for independence from British rule. Peasant movements were led by farmers, laborers, and rural workers who were discontent with the oppressive policies of the British colonial government and the exploitative practices of the landlords and moneylenders.
• Baba Ram Singh initiated the Kuka Movement, which marked the Sikh community's foremost resistance to the British Empire's post-1849 political structure in Punjab. This movement was a blend of political and religious beliefs and represented a notable uprising against the new British authority. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Vasudev Balwant Phadke led the Maharashtra-based Ramosi Uprising as a protest against the British government's failure to take any measures against the famine. This farmer uprising took a violent turn instead of peaceful demonstrations. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
• The Kisan sabhas were organized in UP mainly due to the efforts of the home rule activists. The United Provinces Kisan Sabha was set up in 1918 by Gauri Shankar Mishra and Indra Narayan Dwivedi, Madan Mohan Malaviya. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.

• The main architectural features of the Odisha temples are classified in three orders, viz., Rekhapida, Pidhadeul and Khakra.
• The Jagannath temple at Puri is an important Hindu temple dedicated to Jagannath, a form of Vishnu - one of the trinity of the supreme divinity in Hinduism. Puri is in the state ofOdisha, on the eastern coast of India. The Somavamsa king Indradyumna of Abanti had built the main temple of Lord Jagannath at Puri.
• In general, here the Shikhara, called Deul in Odisha, is vertical almost until the top, when it suddenly curves sharply inwards. Deuls are preceded, as usual, by the Mandapas, called Jagamohana in Odisha.

• The earliest inscriptions of the ancient Indian history were in Prakrit, a name for language used by the ordinary people. The names of the rulers, such as Ajatashatru and Ashoka, known from thePrakrit texts and inscriptions, have been spelt in their Prakrit forms. From c. sixth century BCE onwards, the Brahmanas began composing Sanskrit texts known as the Dharmasutras. These laid down norms for the rulers (as well as for other social categories), who were ideally expected to be Kshatriyas.
• During the Mahajanapadas phase, the rulers were advised to collect taxes and tribute from the cultivators, traders and the artisans. Raids on the neighbouring states were recognised as a legitimate means of acquiring wealth.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: It is required for both inter and intra-state movement.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: E-way bill is to be generated by the consignor or consignee himself if the transportation is being done in own/hired conveyance or by railways by air or by Vessel. If the goods are handed over to a transporter for transportation by road, E-way bill is to be generated by the Transporter. Where neither the consignor nor consignee generates the e-way bill and the value of goods is more than Rs.50, 000/- it shall be the responsibility of the transporter to generate it.

E-way bill

• It is a document required to be carried by a person in charge of the conveyance carrying any consignment of goods of value exceeding fifty thousand rupees as mandated by the Government in terms of Section 68 of the Goods and Services Tax Act.
• E-way bill is required to be generated by a registered GST taxpayer for movement of goods if the value of the consignment is more than Rs. 50,000 for inter-State movement. For intraState movement, limits vary from State to State.
• The e-way bill is required to transport all the goods except exempted under the notifications or rules. Movement of handicraft goods or goods for job-work purposes under specified circ*mstances also requires the e-way bill even if the value of consignment is less than fifty thousand rupees.
• The validity of the e-way bill depends upon the distance the goods have to be transported. In the case of regular vehicle or transportation modes, for every 100 KMs or part of its movement, one-day validity has been provided.
• And in the case of Over Dimensional Cargo vehicles, for every 20 KMs or part of its movement, one-day validity is provided. And this validity expires on the midnight of last day.
• The consignor or consignee, as a registered person or a transporter of the goods, can generate the e-way bill.
• The unregistered transporter can enroll on the common portal and generate the e-way bill for the movement of goods for his clients.
• Any person can also enroll and generate the e-way bill for the movement of goods for his/ her own use.
• Kerala High Court has upheld that E-way bill is not required for transportation of used personal vehicles. The issue here was purchase of a ‘Range Rover’ motor vehicle for which IGST (Integrated Goods & Services Tax) was paid.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The main reason for Biodiversity loss is destruction of habitat as the transformation of the natural areas determines not only the loss of the plant species but also a decrease in the animal species associated with them. Other threat to biodiversity are invasion of alien species, climate change, Deforestation, Increasing Wildlife Trade, Desertification etc.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Biodiversity hotspots are the region with high species richness and high degree of endemism. Norman Myers in 1988 coined the term Biodiversity Hotspots as a biogeographic region characterized by both plant endemism and Habitat loss.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: India has 4 Biodiversity Hotspots i.e. Eastern Himalayas, Indo Burma region, Western Ghats, Sundaland. Nicobar Group of region is considered under Sundaland.

Biodiversity Hotspots

Supplementary Notes:
Factors influence aggregate demand in India
Consumption

• Consumer spending on goods and services is a signific ant component of aggregate demand.
• For example, if the Indian middle class experiences a rise in disposable income, they may increase their spending on consumer durables, automobiles, and leisure activities, thereby boosting aggregate demand.

Investment

• Investment expenditure by businesses contributes to aggregate demand. In India, this includes investments in infrastructure projects, manufacturing facilities, and technological advancements.
• For instance, if the government launches initiatives to improve transportation networks or promotes foreign direct investment, it can stimulate investment and subsequently raise aggregate demand.

Government Spending

• Government expenditure on public goods and services, such as education, healthcare, defense, and infrastructure, impacts aggregate demand.
• Increased government spending can enhance employment opportunities and income levels, resulting in higher consumer spending and overall demand.

Net Exports

• Net exports represent the difference between exports and imports.
• If India’s exports exceed imports, it creates a trade surplus and adds to aggregate demand. Conversely, if imports exceed exports, it leads to a trade defi cit and reduces aggregate demand.

• Pair 1 is correct: Maitraka dynasty was an Indian dynasty that ruled in Gujarat and Saurashtra (the Kathiawar region) from the 5th to the 8th century AD. Its founder was Bhatarka, who was a general who took advantage of the decay of the Gupta empire andestablished himself as a ruler of Gujarat and Saurashtra with Valabhi as his capital.
• Pair 2 is correct: The Maukhari dynasty: were the Northern Indian rulers of the 6th century AD. They were originally the feudatories of the Guptas. Maukharis established their independence at Kannauj in the 6th century. The Maukharis ruled over most of today's Uttar Pradesh, and had some control over Magadha of currently southern Bihar.
• Pair 3 is correct: The Vakataka dynasty was an Indian ruling dynasty that originated in the central Deccan in the mid-3rd century AD. Their empire was extended from Malwa and Gujarat (in the north) to the Tungabhadra (in the south) and from the Arabian Sea (in the west) to the Bay of Bengal (in the east). The Vakatakas claimed Brahmanical origin. Little is known about Vindhyashakti, the founder of the family.
  The territorial expansion of the Vakatakas began in the reign of the son of Vindhyashakti, Pravarasena I. Pravarasena I came to the throne about 270 AD and reached the Narmada River in the northern areas by annexing the kingdom of Purika.

Supplementary Notes:
Aggregate Demand (AD)

• Aggregate Demand (AD) refers to the total demand for goods and services in an economy at a given price level and within a specific time period.
• It represents the total spending by households, businesses, the government, and foreign entities on final goods and services produced within the country.

Formula -
AD = C+I+G+ (X-M)

• C = Consumer expenditure on goods and services.
• I = Gross capital investment – i.e. investment spending on capital goods e.g. factories and machines
• G = Government spending e.g. spending on NHS, education. Note transfer payments in the form of pensions and unemployment benefi ts are not included because they are not related to output produced.
• X = Exports of goods and services. Goods leave the country but money from abroad fl ows into the economy. Therefore this is an increase in AD (an injection into the circular fl ow)
• M = Imports of goods and services, although goods enter the country money is leaving the economy to go to other countries. Therefore AD falls.

• Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The administration under Satavahanas in the rural areas was placed in the hands of a gaulmika, the head of a military regiment consisting of nine chariots, nine elephants, twenty-five horses, and forty-five foot-soldiers. The head of this regiment was posted in the countryside to maintain peace and order.
• Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Among the artisans under Satvahana period, the gandhikas or perfumers are repeatedly mentioned as donors. At a later stage, the term gandhika became so general as to connote all kinds of shopkeepers. The modern title Gandhi is derived from this ancient term.
• Pair 3 is correctly matched: The communities of merchants were organised in groups known as Shreni or guilds under the head called sreshthi. Another type of mercantile group was called sartha which signified mobile or caravan trading corporation of interregional traders. The leader of such a guild was called sarthavaha. Like merchants almost all craft vocations were also organised into guilds, each under a headman called Jyestha.

• The Civil Disobedience Movement was started by Gandhi on 12th March, 1930, with his famous Dandi March. Together with 78 chosen followers, Gandhi walked nearly 375 km, from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, a village on the Gujarat Sea coast. Day after day, the newspapers reported his progress, his speeches and his impact on the people. On 6th April, Gandhiji reached Dandi, picked up a handful of salt, and broke the salt law as a symbol of the Indian people‘s refusal to live under the Britishmade laws and, therefore, under the British rule. Gandhiji declared : The British rule in India has brought about moral, material, cultural, and spiritual ruination of this great country. I regard this rule as a curse.
• I am out to destroy this system of Government. Sedition has become my religion.
• The Movement now spread rapidly. Violation of salt laws all over the country was soon followed by defiance of forestlaws in Maharashtra, Karnataka and the Central Provinces, and refusal to pay the rural Chaukidan tax in eastern India. Everywhere in the country, the people joined hartals, demonstrations and the campaign to boycott foreign goods and to refuse to pay taxes. Lakhs of Indians offered Satyagraha. In many parts of the country, the peasants refused to pay land revenue and rent, and had their lands confiscated. A notable feature of the Movement was the wide participation of women.
• They took active part in picketing shops selling foreign cloth or liquor. The Movement reached the extreme north-western corner of India and stirred the brave and hardy Pathans. Under the leadership of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, popularly known as the Frontier Gandhi‘, the Pathans organized the society of Khudai Khidmatgars (or the Servants of God), known popularly as the Red Shirts.
• They were pledged to non-violence and the freedom struggle. Another noteworthy incident occurred in Peshawar at this time. Two platoons of Garhwali soldiers refused to open fire on non-violent mass demonstrators, even though it meant facing court martial and long terms of imprisonment. This episode showed that nationalism was beginning to penetrate the Indian army, the chief instrument of the British rule. Similarly, the Movement found an echo in the eastern-most corner of India. The Manipuris took a brave part in it and Nagaland produced a brave heroine in Rani Gaidilieu, who, at the age of 13, responded to the call of Gandhi and the Congress, and raised the banner of rebellion against the foreign rule. The young Rani was captured in 1932 and sentenced to life imprisonment. She wasted her bright youthful years in the dark cells of various Assam jails, to be released only in 1947 by the government of free India.
• Over 90,000 Satyagrahis, including Gandhiji and other Congress leaders, were imprisoned. The Congress was declared illegal. The nationalist press was gagged through strict censorship of news. South India, in particular, experienced repression in its most severe form. The police often beat up men just for wearing Khadi or Gandhi caps.

• Statement 1 is correct: The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), is a quasijudicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986. Its head office is in New Delhi. The Commission is headed by a sitting or a retired Judge of the Hon'ble Supreme Court of India or a sitting or a retired Chief Justice of an Hon'ble High Court, in terms of Rule 3(12)(a) of the Tribunal(Conditions of Service) Rules, 2021.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 23 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, provides that any person aggrieved by an order of NCDRC may prefer an Appeal against such order to the Supreme Court of India within a period of 30 days.
  Section 21 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 posits that the National Commission shall have jurisdiction to entertain a complaint valued more than two crores and also have Appellate and Revisional jurisdiction from the orders of State Commissions or the District fora, as the case may be.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: To strengthen e-Governance in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) across the country, Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) has launched e-GramSwaraj, a user friendly web-based portal.
• Statement 2 is correct: e-GramSwaraj aims to bring in better transparency in the decentralised planning, progress reporting and work-based accounting.

e-GramSwaraj

• eGramSwaraj application has been monumental in bringing together a techbased, integrated system of informationgathering, micro level planning, workbased accounting for last tier of local selfgovernment called Panchayats.
• The application has a user base of more than 2.7 Lakh PRIs; spread across 28 States and 6 UTs. The application has been ever evolving because of the continuous feedback from various critical stakeholders such as State officials, end users at Gram Panchayat level, Ministry of Panchayati Raj and National Informatics Centre.

PM SVANidhi Scheme

• PM SVANidhi Scheme: Launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, it aims to provide affordable working capital loans of upto 10,000/- to street vendors to resume their livelihoods that have been affected due to the coronavirus lockdown. It is a Central Sector Scheme that is available to all street vendors engaged in vending in urban areas as on or before March 24, 2020.
• For this loan, no collateral will be taken by the lending institutions. On timely or early repayment, the vendors will be eligible for the next cycle of working capital loan with an enhanced limit. No prepayment penalty will be charged from the vendors for repayment before the scheduled date.
• Scheduled Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks, Small Finance Banks, Cooperative Banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies, Micro-Finance Institutions and SHG Banks are the institutions that will provide credit under the scheme.
• The Scheme is available for benefi ciaries belonging to only those States/UTs which have notifi ed Rules and Scheme under Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014.

• The foundation of the Indian National Congress in 1885 was not a sudden event or a historical accident. It was the culmination of a process of political awakening that had its beginnings in the 1860s and 1870s and took a major leap forward in the late 1870s and early 1880s.
• The year 1885 marked a turning point in this process, for that was the year the political Indians, the modem intellectuals interested in politics, who no longer saw themselves as spokesmen of narrow group interests, but as representatives of national interest vis-a-vis foreign rule, as a ‘national party,’ saw theirefforts bear fruit. The all-India nationalist body that they brought into being was to be the platform, the organizer, the headquarters, and the symbol of the new national spirit and politics.
• The nationalist Indian demands of those years —
  • no reduction of import duties on textile import
  • no expansion in Afghanistan or Burma,
  • the right to bear arms,
  • freedom of the Press,
  • reduction of military expenditure,
  • higher expenditure on famine relief,
  • Indianization of the civil services,
  • the right of Indians to join the semi-military volunteer corps,
  • the right of Indian judges to try Europeans in criminal cases,

Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Jalaluddin Khalji laid the foundation of the Khalji dynasty. He ascended the throne at the age of 70 years.
  Allauddin Khalji was Jalaluddin’s ambitious nephew and son-in-law. He had helped his uncle in his struggle for power and was appointed as Amir-i-Tuzuk (Master of Ceremonies).
• Statement 2 is correct: Allauddin’s measures to control the markets were one of the most important policy initiatives. Since Allauddin wanted to maintain a large army, he, therefore, lowered and fixed the price of the commodities of daily use. To control the prices, Allauddin set up three different markets for different commodities in Delhi. These markets were the grain market (Mandi), cloth market (Sarai Adl) and the market for horses, slaves, cattle, etc.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Since its inception, the major threat to the sultanate came in the form of Mongol invasions. From the 13th century onwards, they repeatedly attacked the Delhi Sultanate. Allauddin Khalji confronted Mongols with full military might. During Khalji’s time, Mongols under Qultlug Khwaja even besieged Delhi and caused a lot of damage.

Finance commission

• The Finance Commission is a constitutional body formed every five years to give suggestions on centre-state fi nancial relations. Each Finance Commission is required to make recommendations on: (i) sharing of central taxes with states, (ii) distribution of central grants to states, (iii) measures to improve the fi nances of states to supplement the resources of panchayats and municipalities, and (iv) any other matter referred to it.
• Composition of transfers: The central taxes devolved to states are untied funds, and states can spend them according to their discretion. Over the years, taxdevolved to states has constituted over 80% of the total central transfers to states (Figure 1). The centre also provides grants to states and local bodies which must be used for specifi ed purposes. These grants have ranged between 12% to 19% of the total transfers.

Article 21 of Indian Constitution

• The right to life is a fundamental human right recognized and protected by the Indian Constitution. Article 21 of the Constitution of India states that “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.” This provision emphasizes the sanctity of life and ensures that every individual has the right to live with dignity and security.
• The right to life under Article 21 encompasses a broad spectrum of rights and has been interpreted expansively by the Indian judiciary. It not only guarantees the right to physical existence but also includes the right to a meaningful life, free from any form of discrimination, violence, or oppression.
• The Supreme Court of India has held that the right to life includes various aspects such as the right to livelihood, the right to health, the right to clean environment, the right to education, and the right to privacy.

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